very important mcqs for nurses’ commission exam

Sure, here are some medical surgical multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with answers:

  1. Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of acute appendicitis?
  • A) Gradual onset of pain
  • B) Pain localized to the upper abdomen
  • C) Rebound tenderness
  • D) Decreased white blood cell count
  • Answer: C) Rebound tenderness
  1. Question: Which of the following is a common symptom of peptic ulcer disease?
  • A) Hematemesis
  • B) Dysphagia
  • C) Melena
  • D) Constipation
  • Answer: A) Hematemesis
  1. Question: A patient with diverticulitis is most likely to present with:
  • A) Left lower quadrant pain
  • B) Right upper quadrant pain
  • C) Diffuse abdominal pain
  • D) Periumbilical pain
  • Answer: A) Left lower quadrant pain
  1. Question: Which of the following is a typical sign of acute cholecystitis?
  • A) Murphy’s sign
  • B) Cullen’s sign
  • C) Grey Turner’s sign
  • D) McBurney’s sign
  • Answer: A) Murphy’s sign
  1. Question: The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is:
  • A) Alcohol abuse
  • B) Gallstones
  • C) Hypertriglyceridemia
  • D) Trauma
  • Answer: B) Gallstones
  1. Question: Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of gastric cancer?
  • A) Chronic use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
  • B) Infection with Helicobacter pylori
  • C) High-fiber diet
  • D) Family history of colon cancer
  • Answer: B) Infection with Helicobacter pylori
  1. Question: A patient with a peptic ulcer is most likely to report pain that:
  • A) Worsens with eating
  • B) Improves with eating
  • C) Is constant throughout the day
  • D) Is relieved by antacids
  • Answer: A) Worsens with eating
  1. Question: Which of the following is a common complication of untreated gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
  • A) Barrett’s esophagus
  • B) Pancreatitis
  • C) Diverticulitis
  • D) Cholecystitis
  • Answer: A) Barrett’s esophagus
  1. Question: A patient with acute peritonitis is most likely to present with:
  • A) Guarding
  • B) Rigidity
  • C) Rebound tenderness
  • D) All of the above
  • Answer: D) All of the above
  1. Question: Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of colorectal cancer?
    • A) High-fiber diet
    • B) Family history of breast cancer
    • C) Age over 50
    • D) Regular exercise
    • Answer: C) Age over 50
  2. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression?
    A) Increased appetite
    B) Insomnia
    C) Feelings of hopelessness
    D) Fatigue
    Answer: A) Increased appetite
  3. What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in schizophrenia?
    A) Serotonin
    B) Dopamine
    C) GABA
    D) Acetylcholine
    Answer: B) Dopamine
  4. A patient with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of this phase?
    A) Depressed mood
    B) Decreased energy
    C) Racing thoughts
    D) Social withdrawal
    Answer: C) Racing thoughts
  5. Which of the following is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications?
    A) Hypertension
    B) Weight gain
    C) Bradycardia
    D) Increased libido
    Answer: B) Weight gain
  6. What is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
    A) Antidepressants
    B) Benzodiazepines
    C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
    D) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
    Answer: A) Antidepressants
  7. A patient with borderline personality disorder (BPD) is exhibiting manipulative behavior. The nurse should:
    A) Set clear boundaries
    B) Avoid confrontation
    C) Give in to the patient’s demands
    D) Ignore the behavior
    Answer: A) Set clear boundaries
  8. Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal?
    A) Hypertension
    B) Delirium
    C) Hypoventilation
    D) Bradycardia
    Answer: B) Delirium
  9. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by:
    A) Binge eating
    B) Excessive weight gain
    C) Intense fear of gaining weight
    D) Normal body image perception
    Answer: C) Intense fear of gaining weight
  10. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
    A) Risperidone
    B) Atomoxetine
    C) Olanzapine
    D) Quetiapine
    Answer: B) Atomoxetine
  11. Which of the following is a symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
    A) Hypervigilance
    B) Euphoria
    C) Disorganized speech
    D) Flat affect
    Answer: A) Hypervigilance
  12. Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to vaccination that might be useful for a nurse’s exam, along with their answers:
  13. What is the purpose of vaccination?
    A) To treat diseases
    B) To prevent diseases
    C) To cure diseases
    D) To manage symptoms
    Answer: B) To prevent diseases
  14. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
    A) Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
    B) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
    C) Hepatitis B vaccine
    D) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
    Answer: B) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
  15. Which vaccine is recommended for pregnant women to protect their newborns?
    A) Tdap vaccine
    B) Influenza vaccine
    C) Hepatitis B vaccine
    D) Meningococcal vaccine
    Answer: A) Tdap vaccine
  16. What is the most common side effect of vaccines?
    A) Fever
    B) Headache
    C) Nausea
    D) Allergic reaction
    Answer: A) Fever
  17. Which vaccine is given to protect against pneumonia?
    A) MMR vaccine
    B) Varicella vaccine
    C) Pneumococcal vaccine
    D) Rotavirus vaccine
    Answer: C) Pneumococcal vaccine
  18. How often should the influenza vaccine be given?
    A) Every year
    B) Every 5 years
    C) Every 10 years
    D) Every 20 years
    Answer: A) Every year
  19. Which statement is true about herd immunity?
    A) It is achieved when everyone in a population is vaccinated
    B) It protects only vaccinated individuals
    C) It does not play a role in preventing outbreaks
    D) It helps protect unvaccinated individuals
    Answer: D) It helps protect unvaccinated individuals
  20. Which vaccine is given to protect against human papillomavirus (HPV)?
    A) Hepatitis A vaccine
    B) Varicella vaccine
    C) HPV vaccine
    D) Meningococcal vaccine
    Answer: C) HPV vaccine
  21. What is the recommended age for the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine?
    A) At birth
    B) 2 months
    C) 6 months
    D) 1 year
    Answer: A) At birth
  22. Which statement is true about the measles vaccine?
    A) It is given orally
    B) It is a killed vaccine
    C) It requires multiple doses for full protection
    D) It is not effective in preventing measles
    Answer: C) It requires multiple doses for full protection
  23. Question: Which of the following is the primary focus of community health nursing?
  24. A) Individual health promotion
  25. B) Family health promotion
  26. C) Community health promotion
  27. D) Hospital-based care
  28. Answer: C) Community health promotion
  29. Question: Which of the following best describes the role of a community health nurse?
  30. A) Providing direct care to individuals in hospitals
  31. B) Conducting health assessments and screenings in the community
  32. C) Performing surgeries in a healthcare facility
  33. D) Administering medications in a long-term care facility
  34. Answer: B) Conducting health assessments and screenings in the community
  35. Question: Which of the following is a goal of community health nursing?
  36. A) Increasing hospital admissions
  37. B) Reducing healthcare costs
  38. C) Focusing on acute care only
  39. D) Providing care to individuals only
  40. Answer: B) Reducing healthcare costs
  41. Question: Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention activity in community health nursing?
  42. A) Administering flu shots
  43. B) Treating a wound
  44. C) Providing rehabilitation services
  45. D) Performing surgery
  46. Answer: A) Administering flu shots
  47. Question: Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity in community health nursing?
  48. A) Teaching a community about healthy eating habits
  49. B) Screening for cancer in a high-risk population
  50. C) Providing prenatal care to pregnant womenD) Performing CPR on a person in cardiac arrest
  51. ans B) Screening for cancer in a high-risk population

there are some important multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to nursing care for a burn patient, commission exam

  1. Question: What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with partial-thickness burns covering 30% of the body?
  • A) Administering pain medication
  • B) Monitoring fluid balance
  • C) Assessing respiratory status
  • D) Initiating tetanus prophylaxis
  • Answer: B) Monitoring fluid balance
  1. Question: Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication in a burn patient?
  • A) Decreased urine output
  • B) Cool, clammy skin
  • C) Increased heart rate
  • D) Mild edema at the burn site
  • Answer: A) Decreased urine output
  1. Question: How should a nurse prioritize care for a patient with burns to the face, neck, and chest?
  • A) Airway, breathing, circulation
  • B) Circulation, airway, breathing
  • C) Breathing, airway, circulation
  • D) Airway, circulation, breathing
  • Answer: A) Airway, breathing, circulation
  1. Question: Which intervention is essential for preventing infection in a burn patient?
  • A) Applying a topical antibiotic ointment
  • B) Using sterile technique for dressing changes
  • C) Administering prophylactic antibiotics
  • D) Limiting visitors to reduce exposure to pathogens
  • Answer: B) Using sterile technique for dressing changes
  1. Question: What is the primary goal of fluid resuscitation in a burn patient?
  • A) Preventing hypovolemic shock
  • B) Maintaining electrolyte balance
  • C) Promoting wound healing
  • D) Preventing infection
  • Answer: A) Preventing hypovolemic shock
  1. Question: Which statement by a burn patient indicates a need for further teaching about wound care?
  • A) “I should keep my dressings clean and dry.”
  • B) “I can remove my dressings to let my skin breathe.”
  • C) “I should watch for signs of infection, like redness or pus.”
  • D) “I need to wash my hands before and after changing my dressings.”
  • Answer: B) “I can remove my dressings to let my skin breathe.”
  1. Question: How should a nurse assess pain in a burn patient who is unable to communicate verbally?
  • A) Monitor vital signs for changes
  • B) Observe facial expressions and body language
  • C) Ask family members about the patient’s pain level
  • D) Use a pain scale that incorporates nonverbal cues
  • Answer: B) Observe facial expressions and body language
  1. Question: Which statement about nutrition for burn patients is true?
  • A) Burn patients require fewer calories than usual to promote healing.
  • B) Protein needs for burn patients are similar to those for non-burn patients.
  • C) Vitamins and minerals are typically not supplemented in burn patients.
  • D) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition in burn patients.
  • Answer: D) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition in burn patients.

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